When I applied for an Amazon VISA card (a few years ago), I was turned down on-line. A few days later, I got a call from Chase telling me the reason I was turned down was I had adequate credit from Chase. If I wanted then they would approve the Chase Amazon VISA for whatever limit I wanted as long as they reduced my other Chase card by the same amount. I decided on a Chase Amazon card with a $2,000 limit.
I recently got DENIED for a Barclay's card but they did not offer me the opportunity to move credit from one card to another.
Is their any logic,pattern or model to the amount of credit on a specific card versus the total credit on all cards for a specific creditor? I got an Orvis VISA card because they were offering a promo cash discount. It got approved for $10,000 then got closed last year due to inactivity. Since Chase gave me a new $10k card does this suggest that if I called and asked for a CLI for my Chase Amazon card that I might have been given a $10k increase? As a general rule, is it easier to get a CLI or a new branded card? (Trivia, two months after Chased closed my Orvis card they approved me for a Disney card with a $4,600 limit.)
For an individual creditor (ie Chase, Citibank, USAA, Discover, etc), for a consumer who usually PIF with a 0% to 1% utilization what is considered a good individual card limit ? combined or total credit limit across all cards issued by that creditor? (I assume the credit limit is usually based somewhat on income?)
As my utilization has decreased my automatic CLI's have disappeared. As my income increased my total credit remained constant so my total credit/income decreased. In order to avoid AA what is considered a safe total available credit limit to income ratio?