I was married for years (in the state of Oregon). When my ex-wife and I decided to call it quits, we came to a financial settlement, agreed that each of us would pay off our individual bills, split one big one, put it in writing, and we filed this agreement.
Now I find out that in this period of time, she had a collection lodged against her, and then a judgment passed down by the court holding her responsible for an old medical bill. Apparently she was served with paperwork. I did not know anything about this until yesterday, when I received a bill for $4400+ from the collection agency. They claim that the process server was allowed to serve her instead of me individually because we were married, and that even though we are now divorced, I'm responsible for this debt and it will be on my credit report until it's paid in full.
I'm a little hesitant to believe them, because they clearly want to collect. It's not my bill, and it's not showing up on my credit report on either MyFico or Experian as a delinquent account or as a judgment. Since there is an agreement on file with the courts as to the responsibilities in our divorce, can I be held liable for her old bill?
