mortgage foreclosure sold

[Anonymous]

I know I have read about this somewhere, but can't seem to find it now.  My husband's ex lost their house after divorce.  Since then, the loan was sold or transferred to another company without any notification.  On his credit report, it states that it was transferred.  Does that re-age the DOFD?

[Anonymous]

Debts cannot legally be re-aged under normal circumstances (although collection agencies try to do it anyway).

[Anonymous]

I think the DOFD is 9/04 because she was losing the house and we paid a set amount to get it back - which didn't catch up on all of the delinquencies.  The newest company it is listed under has that as the dofd.  The prior company has that as the last payment, but the date of delinquency leading to forelcosure 4/01, and due to fall off 4/08.  The other isn't due to come off until 9/2011.

[Anonymous]

I think I just found my answer.  Since the payment was never completely caught up, the original dofd should be 4/2001 even though there were payments made in between, and the account was transferred. 

[Anonymous]

Question???  I paid off a mortgage in 2005 when I sold my home. On my EX its showing as Closed (transfered) TU showing (Closed) EQ showing Closed(paid).  Is this affecting my scores at all, and should I dispute or leave it?

[Anonymous]

As these desciptions are not hurting you I would leave it alone.

If you really want them displayed all as "Closed (paid)" as they should be I would send a letter to the OC and kindly ask them to update.

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so_confused wrote:

Question???  I paid off a mortgage in 2005 when I sold my home. On my EX its showing as Closed (transfered) TU showing (Closed) EQ showing Closed(paid).  Is this affecting my scores at all, and should I dispute or leave it?

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