Thanks so much for your answer. So does that note on the judgment means that since we've paid before the 30 days are up the judgment then will be dismissed?
An attorney told me that we need to have the judgment set aside and that even with that my husband's credit can still be affected if the creditor decides to report it. He said that I need to call the creditor and ask (beg) for a letter that states that they won't report it.
Forgive me for asking what could be very obvious to most of you but I just want to make sure that we do what we are suppose to do and that the creditor doesn't fool us anymore.
*THE COURT ORDERS JUDGMENT AS FOLLOWS:
*Moreover, the parties stipulate that satisfaction within 30 days this judgment shall automatically convert to a dismissal*
Does that means that it won't go on my hubby's credit if it has been already paid in full??