Actually it depends
Have either of you lived in that house that was purchased by her in the last 3 years?
If it has been the primary residence for either of you within the last 3 years then mickie is correct and the answer is nope. If, on the other hand, neither of you have lived there in the past 3 years and have been renting or living somewhere else (that wasn't owned by either of you) and not been claiming for homstead and have been showing it as NOT your primary residence then you may be.
