So here's the situation. I purchased my home in 2002, while married to my first husband. We divorced shortly thereafter, and as part of the divorce agreement, I refinanced the house into my name only, taking out the equity so that I could pay down my car and everything else, in a desperate attempt to be able to afford the place to keep myself and my three children there.
Fast forward to now. I have remarried, just two years ago. My current husband and I are separated, but trying to work things out. He is living in his own home, not mine. I will not be able to continue to pay this mortgage, and the houses on my block are going for $170k...my loan is 220k! I am 50k upside down.
I am going to have no choice but to allow the home to foreclose.
My question is twofold....number one, what are the chances that the mortgage company will try to come back and sue me for the leftover balance after they sell the house? and number two, will this impact my current husband's credit even though his name was never on the loan and the loan was secured before we were ever together?