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I have just started the mortgage application process for a home I am purchasing.
So far, the initial application process seems to be pretty similar to the last time I bought a house. But here's the question I have.
The last time I had gotten a mortgage (with a husband at the time, but we are divorced now), I had to document and sign that I was sexually active, on birth control, that I was not pregnant, and not intending to get pregnant within some timeframe (I think it was 24 months) or so. I recall that being pretty early in the application process, and because I was a married female of child-bearing age and my income was counting towards the debt-income ratios, it was a requirement for the mortgage approval (I think it was Norwest Mortgage at the time).
I haven't been asked that yet on this application. At what point will I have to provide this information, since I am still of childbearing age? Or will that question not be asked because I am not married and therefore not assumed to be sexually active?
I'm also curious about how long ago this was - this practice is almost definitely illegal these days. In the past, similar questions were often asked of women applying for jobs; this, too, is not permitted (at least not by my employers over the last several years).
I don't think Norwest has been in existence as an independent entity for many years.
Updating: This was back in the summer of 1985. I didn't like having to answer their questions then, (and as it turned out, I did end up having a baby nearly 2 years later, but I never informed them of that fact). I figured if I was still working and paying the mortgage, it was none of their business.