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HI,
I have recently received my pre-approval for a home to buy in Ohio. Here is my delima while workign with a mortgage broker to get my credit cleaned up and my scores where they need to be, in which I did, I asked my mortgage broker about judgements in which I did disclose. Well I have a total of two, one which was not a default I am currently making payments to the attorney in which the balance will be paid before closing on Nov. 5 estimated date. The other I am also making payments on which this was a default judgement in which it is currently going through the appeals process to vacate because of me not receiving proper notice to show up for court, but in the meantime speaking with an attorney he said it would be better to start paying through a trustee which I have been doing. My question is I am worried though even though the mortgage broker said he is not sure, that it will come up in the title seach because either is showing up on my credit report. So I am worried that this will not pass title search. Does anyone have any ideas or suggestions. Has anyone been through this before or had any success with getting through the process? Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated.
Barnantoin -- someone else had posted (General Credit, I think) about a having a judgement reversed because they were not served within 30 days of the suit being filed.
The creditor filed the judgement suit. Then tried to locate the person...the person was eventually served two months later. But the creditor failed to renew the suite every 30 days.
Something to check out...or use as a defense. Your attny should know about the 30 day rule. And it sounds like you were never served.
Someone else was served to the wrong address and a judgement was issued against the person. The person took proof of address going back to the 80's and was able to get the judgement vacated.
Good luck!
I have been a title officer in NJ for 24 years. In NJ, if a docketed judgment shows up on our search we will require it to be satisfied. Since you are purchasing, the "purchase money mortgage statute" protects the lender so while we would not require it be satisfied, it would remain as an exception on your owners title policy. Therefore, it is up to the lender and the advice you got from everyone else applies. I hope this background info helps a little.
Thank you so much, I know this doesn't relieve this situation but but it relieves my vnerves somewhat that there posibly can be a light at the end of the tunnell maybe I great appreciate everyone's advice. Thank you so much jimkjr.
Is there a standard title search, or does it just depend on the company the lender uses? I was reading that sometimes a basic one is done in some instances where the house was bank owned, not sure if that is true or not.
Thanks again