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I was on title of my ex's house that forclosed a few years ago. Does this still mean I need to wait the 3 years as well even though I was not on the loan?
secondly I see 2 dates kinda. One is the conformation of sale listed on the actual forclosure court case, and the other is the new owner listed on title? any thoughts?
Logically if you weren't on the mortgage you weren't responsible for the payments so you should not have any penalty for it not being paid. I'd wait for one of the pros but I don't see why it would be an issue.
thank you for your response. I also seen along with me the county auditor etal were on this too so it must be formality.