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If the creditor sold the debt after it was charged-off, they will discontinue any updates thereafter, as they no longer have the debt.
It's status remains one of a delinquent account, and once the OC reports the mandatory update to $0, they have no further reporting requriment.
You can send a GW request without fear of further damage. There is nothing further for them to update.
As for a dispute, it is not clear as to whether the credtior actually made any inaccurate reporting. You wont get any actual delinquencies or the chrge-off removed, and it appears to properly be in a delinquency status, so I dont see a disputable inaccuracy.
What would be your basis for a dispute of the accuracy of their reporting other than the unclear "OK"'s, which are likely not their reporting......
The only thing I see on Experian and separately on a tri-merge is that they are reporting I'm past due for $555 yet under balance and terms it says 0. How can I be past due ?
It was past due (delinquent) in current status. They are providing the amount at last reported delinquency.
Reporting $0 balance does not mean there is no more debt. It means there is no longer a debt due to the creditor because of their sale.
The debt is still floating around, and can be provided by the purchasing debt collector if/when they report.
You can dispute should you disagree, but the salient point is that the OC account had a final delinquency status, but there is no longer a debt owed to them.
That is accurate.
Midland has the debt and I'm paying them. I guess my question about Barclays is why is it saying a past due amount if I no longer have a balance with them and is this having an impact ?