I'm pretty new to all this but my husband has an old tmobile account from 2006 on his credit.
For transunion it is as an open negative account and it is on there twice under 2 different collection agencies...credmgmtcntl and enhancrcvrco
it is on experian and equifax as a collection and through enhancrcvrco
What should I do about this ?
Are they allowed to have it listed twice like they do on transunion?
if the 1st one sold it to the 2nd one, then yes, i believe it's ok.
Yes both can report, as long as the 1st CA changes the balance to $0 when they sold the debt to the 2nd CA.
If paid, send GW letters to both CA's asking nicely to delete.
If unpaid, IMO, I wouldnt contact the 1st CA,because you never know, if they have a connection with the 2nd CA.
The balance didn't change to 0 on the first CA it is still 385 ....same as the second CA.
Also now date opened is different as well. It's saying date opened 8/08 So now do we have to wait 7 years from 08? or still 06
Ignore any "open date" reporting by CAs. The date used to determine when something drops is the DOFD. Date opened is the day they took over the debt.
I'd dispute both and let the CRA determine which one should be reporting. One is reporting inaccurately and shouldn't be there.
That all depends are several factors. Example: Have you moved since this account was opened? Did you notify the creditor and or lender that you moved with your correct updated information?
Since Enhance Recovery Co took over in account which was in 8/10 we have lived in the same place and this address is listed on the credit report as our current address. This bill is from 2006 which we didn't even know we owed, the OC is tmobile.
We never received anything from either ERC or the Credit Management company.
Any update, I'm dealing with the same situation with Enhanced Recovery. They reported an old T-mobile form 2006, my score droped 70 points and didn't find out until I was shopping for a mortgage.
I've DV;d them, but haven't heard anything back yet.
Wow, what a mess!
To unravel it, I think you first need to know the chain of ownership of the debt itself.
Here is what I would focus on.
First is the OC. When they brought CA1 into the picture, did they just assign collection authority to them, or did they sell the debt to them?
Are they still the owner of the debt, or was it transferred to CA1? The best way to determine this from your CR is whether the OC is still reporting a balance owed.
Regardless of whether CA1 was only assinged collection authority on behalf of the OC, or whether they actually purchased the debt, they (CA1) can report a collection to the CRA. They report a balance on their collection account of the amount of the debt. This reported balance could mean one of two things. Either it is the balance they are collecting on behalf of the OC, or it is the balance of debt that they now own. The credit reporting codes are the same, so you cant tell ownership from reporting done to their CA account. You can only infer it from the OC also reporrting a $0 balance owed to them. That means CA1 bought it.
If CA1 obtained ownership of the debt, they are fully entitiled to collect it on their own, or to assign collection activites to a CA2.
Thus, CA2 can then legitimatly report their collection activities to the CRA.
If CA1 owns the debt, their reporrting of balance reflects the debt owed to them
If CA2 is a collection agent for CA1, their reporting can reflect the same dollar amount, but is a statement, not of debt owed directly to them, but rather of the amount of the debt they are authorized to pursue collection.
That may lead to multiple CA postings to your CR on the same debt, but I see nothing improper. They are escalating reporting of failure to satisfy the debt, and thus bring with them escalating derog credit reporting.
Yes, debt, in its different forms, can be reported on multiple OC/CA postings to your credit report.