No. It has nothing to do with the original holding of the court that the debt was legit, and payment required.
Most state statutes/rules of procedure require the judgment creditor to notify the court once the judgment has been satisfied.
The court needs that information in the event that a party attempts to file with the court an action to secure the terms of the judgment, such as by taking of property or garnishing wages.
The date provided by the court might be the date they received notice from the judgment creditor, and not the actual date payment was transferred.
Regardless, even if it incorrectly states that as date of payment, it is not a matter that cannot be corrected. I dont see evidence of willful misreporting or prejudice to the consumer. Get it resolved, but dont expect any vacating of the judgment on that basis.
