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I have been rebuilding my credit, got my Experian up to 717, applied for BCE AMEX, approved 10k.
Then I tried to apply for Discover it and PNC Visa (after many pre-screened offers with fixed APRs) and got denied to my surprise.
Rechecked my experian and the score dropped to 576!
I have an old debt from OC (credit card). that surfaced for the first time (never previously reported before to experian). I am not sure what the DOFD is either, but we are looking at ~6 years now.
The account apparently had a date of first delinquency sometime in mid-2010 (based on the stated expected exclusion date of mid-2017).
A creditor is not required to report all (or in fact, any) monthly delinquencies.
The requirment under the FCRA is that what is reported cannot knowingly be inaccurate.
The debt was charged-off at some prior, unspecified time, and the creditor then decided to first report the account and CO in 09/2016.
There is nothing improper in delaying their reporting until 2016, or in lack of reporting of each and every prior monthly delinquency.
I do not see anyting that is clearly inaccurate.
If you do dispute, the creditor could decide to update their reporting by including each and every monthly delinquency from 2010 to date.
That is not likely to be beneficial.......
Thanks very helpful.
Upon further investigation, I learned that the creditor reported to all 3 bureaus. I disputed TU and EQ so far, mainly on the fact that they have different dates for DOFD. One says 3/1/2010 another says 3/26/2010.
I didn't do anything with EX yet.
Worst case, it get's removed soon enough (next year), but I rather get it out now.
A DOFD is only reported as the month/year. It does not include a day of the month. FCRA 623(a)(5).
Thus, the two reportings are the same as they relate to DOFD.
The CRA will likely simply inform you that the reporting only includes mo/yyyy, and is accurate.
A DOFD is only reported as the month/year. It does not include a day of the month. FCRA 623(a)(5).
Thus, the two reportings are the same as they relate to DOFD.
The CRA will likely simply inform you that the reporting only includes mo/yyyy, and is accurate.
Completely understand - but then would you be able to help me understand why a specific day was provided as well in both scenarios that were quite different?
Based on what you're telling me - it is also worth asking:
Am I pretty much "handcuffed" until it goes away next year?
Do I have any options at this point?