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I am getting ready to send out 2 PFD's to Capital One. 1 has DOFD 05/07 with $1500 balance, 1 has DOFD 07/07 with $1800 balance.
Each had an original CL of $500.
Do you think I should start sending a PFD of 20% for each?
Cap 1 doesn't do PFD even if you PIF...
at 20% your only going to pay $360 on a bal of $1800 and the $1500 would be $300. Paying that will still affect your utilization.
It shouldn't affect utilization because it would be considered paid and they would need to reflect a 0 balance.
@guiness56 wrote:It shouldn't affect utilization because it would be considered paid and they would need to reflect a 0 balance.
That is true, I should have looked at that way. Going back to bed This flu is killing me!!!!! Blah
So, should I try??
Why not. Even though they have a habit of saying no, if you look through the threads, they do say yes.
@guiness56 wrote:Why not. Even though they have a habit of saying no, if you look through the threads, they do say yes.
This is why we love guiness!!!! They can say No 1,000 times, but it only takes one yes.
@Shogun wrote:
@guiness56 wrote:Why not. Even though they have a habit of saying no, if you look through the threads, they do say yes.
This is why we love guiness!!!! They can say No 1,000 times, but it only takes one yes.
Yes we do!!!! Guiness give very good advise. I can't take anything awy from Shogun either. He loves my Chicago BlackHawks!!!!!
You are ALL amazing in my book!
SO, here's another question...if I settle and then the SOL runs out, any mortgage lender won't require me to PIF right?