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I recently checked my credit reports and found two COs posted by a CA for medical charges in 06 and 07. The medical center never sent me bills for either. I've had this problem in the past with not getting bills in a timely manner from them I had written and asked for an itemized statement for the 2006 charges but never received. They apparently turned it over to a CA shortly thereafter. The CA has never contacted me - by phone or mail -
for either charge. Since they have violated the FDCA, I am determined that they not receive a penny.
I sent a DV letter to the CA (and the CRAs) for the first CO from 06 as it posted several months ago. The CA only sent a copy of the invoice. I don't dispute the debts are mine; therefore I don't want to waste time with DVs for the 07 debt. The economy has hit my income hard and it will be a hardship to pay the entire amount. Should I send a PFD letter to the OC? If they have sold it to the CA (which I think they have), what is my recourse?
Thanks for any advice you can give me.
Thanks for responding, fused!
The bills were for lab work (various blood tests) and a bone density test. I've checked and the lab work costs were over $100 more than what I would have paid elsewhere. The bone test was only $57. They couldn't find the results for some time and never billed me, but I have checked my insurance benefit claims, and have deduced that the CO (which I didn't DV) is for that. There was also a $32 claim for radiology submitted on that day. I owe $22 for that according to Blue Cross but have never been billed. I wonder if that will just show up as another CO on my CRs.
I assumed that the debt had been sold because the balance was showing as O from the provider. I thought that was how you could tell. However, on the copy of the lab work invoice received from the CA, it says "BAL ASSND TO AGENCY: $170.38."
I haven't determined how much I should offer with a PFD. I don't know whether to include the $22 or not. I'd like to put this all to rest asap. I suppose I could bear the burden and just pay the whole amount. It just chaps my hide to do so. They should have billed me in a timely manner - when I had a job! If I do send a PFD and they reject it, I figured I'd then just pay the entire amount. Do you foresee a problem in having the COs removed it if I proceed this way?
Also, any suggestions as to what to do about the CA who violated the FDCPA? They shouldn't be allowed to get away with this.