Successfully Paid the OC....but Now What About the CA Reporting?

[Stevenson23]

After sending several PFD letters to Receivables Performance Management (RPM) for a $71 PG&E bill with no response at all from RPM I decided to just send a check to PG&E (the OC) for $71.  Well I checked my account today and PG&E cashed my check yesterday. I also checked my account at RPM today and they still have me owing $71.

So now my question is what steps do I take next?  Should I contact RPM and let them know that I settled my account with PG&E?  Or should I dispute RPM with the credit bureaus? 

BTW, the PFD letters that I sent stated that I didn't acknowledge owing the $71 but would pay to just get it cleared from my credit report.  All the advise on here says that you can't/shouldn't send a DV letter after sending a PFD letter but in this situation would if be proper to send a DV letter to RPM?  Can they still continue to report if the OC is PIF?

Any help at al is greatly appreciated!

[llecs]

The CA can still report, but they must report $0. If I had that, I would wait. I'd wait 30 days and if they didn't update to $0, then I'd write the CA informing them they are misreporting and that it had already been paid and I'd kindly ask them to delete. If they update before 30 days, then I'd GW them the moment they updated.

[LIGHTNIN]

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@llecs wrote:

The CA can still report, but they must report $0. If I had that, I would wait. I'd wait 30 days and if they didn't update to $0, then I'd write the CA informing them they are misreporting and that it had already been paid and I'd kindly ask them to delete. If they update before 30 days, then I'd GW them the moment they updated.

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+1000 

[RobertEG]

I would not hold out hope that delay in updating the collection to show that the debt is paid will result in any CR deletion.

Remedy of inaccurate reporting does not require deletion of the disputed reporting.  They can simply update the reporting to make it accurate.  Deletion is required only when they agree to an inaccuracy and cannot or choose not to correct the reporting inaccuracy, or cannot verify the accuracy.

It is an administrarive matter, not a matter of knowingly reporting inaccurate information.

Additionally, the CRA is not in a position to determine that, just because the debt has been satisfied with the OC, that any and all debt has also been satisfied with the debt collector.

If they assert debt accrued to them through their collection process, satisfaction of the debt with the OC does not necessarily mean that the debt collector must update to $0.

The CRA is in no position to make determinations as to remaining debt.

[Stevenson23]

If they [CA] assert debt accrued to them through their collection process, satisfaction of the debt with the OC does not necessarily mean that the debt collector must update to $0.  That's a laugh! I didn't know a debt collector could actually charge you for collecting the debt you owe.  Well, in my case as of Feb. 17, 2012 the CA didn't add on any charges and I have proof in the letter they sent me.  At least this collection will update with a $0 balance owned.

In your experience, how much time must pass before a collection's score busting impact fades?

[llecs]

You wouldn't want it to update to $0 necessarily. Per FICO, a $0 balance CA is equally damaging as one reporting $10,000. Paid or unpaid, it hurts equally. I'd guess you'd regain roughly half of those points back over the next many years, before it deletes due to the CRTP. To speed up the process, send them a GW asking for a deletion.