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I just want to be sure I have this right.
DH and I had a judgement issued against us in 1999 and was paid a few years later. It is off of our reports but is still showing at the courthouse as unpaid. I have the documents to show where we paid it. Before I go to the courthouse to start the process I want to be sure I understand it. Does it go from date issued or paid to be removed from credit reports?? Before I open a can of worms so to speak I want to know all my possible outcomes.
Thanks!!
demed is correct that sometimes when a judgment updates as paid with the courts, the company that reports public records picks it up as a new judgment.
I have a friend that had a couple tax liens and when paid, they were re-reported as paid tax liens and were showing on their report along with the unpaid tax liens.
However, if you would like it to show paid at the courthouse and you are not about to start app'ing for anything, then I would contact the courts to have it fixed.
If this gets picked up and reported back on your reports, you'll have to dispute as "past CRTP per FCRA".
Per FCRA, it is 7 years from filed date.
when was it paid? if the record gets updated, this might get back on your credit report...
demed is correct that sometimes when a judgment updates as paid with the courts, the company that reports public records picks it up as a new judgment.
I have a friend that had a couple tax liens and when paid, they were re-reported as paid tax liens and were showing on their report along with the unpaid tax liens.
However, if you would like it to show paid at the courthouse and you are not about to start app'ing for anything, then I would contact the courts to have it fixed.
If this gets picked up and reported back on your reports, you'll have to dispute as "past CRTP per FCRA".
Per FCRA, it is 7 years from filed date.