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All but one cc reporting a 0 balance, how many pts?

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money_talks
Frequent Contributor

All but one cc reporting a 0 balance, how many pts?

About how many points does FICO award you for having all but one of your CCs report a 0 balance? YMMV of course, but anyone have a range? Maybe 5-20 points difference?

 

I am applying for credit next month. Here is my scenario:

 

Total amount available to pay towards credit cards: $500

 

Credit card A = $2500 balance (CL=$3000)

Credit card B = $500 balance

 

If I only pay B, card A will be the only cc on my CR with a balance. Card A will report with a 83% util but the overall util will be the same no matter which card I pay.

 

If I only pay A, card A will report with a 66% util, but FICO will ding me for having balance on 2 or more cards.

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Revelate
Moderator Emeritus

Re: All but one cc reporting a 0 balance, how many pts?

I'd pay the high balance card.  The penalty for a maxxed out tradeline is worse than the bump you'd get in your scenario anecdotally, and 80% might be the magic line even if Chase's new policy broke my testing of 86% utilization.

 

Either way I wouldn't leave the Discover that high, and ideally bring it further down before any application was made.




        
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money_talks
Frequent Contributor

Re: All but one cc reporting a 0 balance, how many pts?

Revelate, thanks. How about if I was able to gather a little more money to pay off the cards?

 

Total amount available to pay towards credit cards: $630

 

Credit card A = $2500 balance (CL=$3000)

Credit card B = $500 balance

 

If I pay $130 towards A, that would leave me with a util of 79% on that card. I could then pay the remaining money towards card B so it reports at a 0 balance.

 

Or would you still pay the entire $630 towards card A? That would leave Card A with a 62% util.

 

 

 

Message 3 of 4
Revelate
Moderator Emeritus

Re: All but one cc reporting a 0 balance, how many pts?


@money_talks wrote:

Revelate, thanks. How about if I was able to gather a little more money to pay off the cards?

 

Total amount available to pay towards credit cards: $630

 

Credit card A = $2500 balance (CL=$3000)

Credit card B = $500 balance

 

If I pay $130 towards A, that would leave me with a util of 79% on that card. I could then pay the remaining money towards card B so it reports at a 0 balance.

 

Or would you still pay the entire $630 towards card A? That would leave Card A with a 62% util.

 

 

 


From a pure FICO perspective, I'd go with option A.  From an underwriting perspective, tough to say but probably B.  

 

I guess the big question is simply this: can you delay your apps somewhat to when you have your reported balances in better check?  That would improve your odds as a FICO score is only one part of the underwriting equation and I personally believe in putting as much lipstick on the pig as possible.




        
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