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maybe someone can explain to me why it is possible for some with bankruptcy to have a higher score than someone who hasn't filed bankrupcty but has a few derogs? granted manual review will always be a factor but this seems backwards.
i guess i can see that as an explanation. a BK is one major derog as opposed to scattered derogs on a report
A factor that needs to be considered is when the derogatory information occured. If the backruptcy occured 8 years ago on one report and the other report has account an account currently late place a recent collection then yes the score for the BK report could be higher. FICO also considers when the derogatory information occured.