by on ‎01-26-2011 06:00 PM

Can I assume that the part that says:when a lending decision, based on their credit score or credit report, results in credit terms that are less favorable than those offered to other borrowers that this will include outright denial of credit? Common sense tells me it should but often creditors seems to lack that virtue. 


If that seems like a silly question forgive me.


I think if scores (FICO) are offered instead of reports this is a good thing for consumers since reports are readily available now.