Paid as agreed Vs Paid In full HELP!!!!

[MarineVietVet]

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@CS800 wrote:

So if a card was closed because of some lates but im still making payments on them.

My lates were back in 2007. Once the account is PIF, will it become a positive acount?

Right now they are listed as negative accounts; although it sayd Pay as agreed in the current status.

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As mentioned the lates will remain on your reports even after the account is paid in full. Closed accounts generally continue to report for up to 10 years after closing.

Late payments will stay for 7 years from each individual date of delinquency. Once all the lates drop off the account will become postive and remain so for the rest of that 10 year period.

From a BK years ago to:
EX - 3/11 pulled by lender- 835, EQ - 2/11-816, TU - 2/11-782

"Some people spend an entire lifetime wondering if they've made a difference. The Marines don't have that problem".

[Anonymous]

Thank you for the suggestions.

Sounds good--I'll just wait until I get the letter confirming that it'll say "R01, etc.," before I request a deletion of the lates.  There are 5 "30-days late", one "60 days late", and "Account closed by consumer" remarks

"If you have older accounts than this one, having the account removed all together is better if they're not willing to remove the late payments."

This account is the oldest.  It's certainly the oldest account that's delinquent, as I have a student loan that's older than this that hasn't been reported as delinquent.  So, since I don't have any account older than this one, and if they're not willing to remove the late payments, it's better for it to say R1?  If I have it right, is that because late payments would be removed by default if the account is removed altogether, and the newer the account, the more damaging the late payments are because it will take longer for it to drop off the report?

I'm concerned that when I told him that I might be able to get enough money to pay off the balance in full that somehow this was an agreement to pay the amount in full and that this nullifies the settlement agreement offer that they sent me for half the balance.

Thanks

[android01]

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@Anonymous wrote:

Thank you for the suggestions.

Sounds good--I'll just wait until I get the letter confirming that it'll say "R01, etc.," before I request a deletion of the lates.  There are 5 "30-days late", one "60 days late", and "Account closed by consumer" remarks

"If you have older accounts than this one, having the account removed all together is better if they're not willing to remove the late payments."

This account is the oldest.  It's certainly the oldest account that's delinquent, as I have a student loan that's older than this that hasn't been reported as delinquent.  So, since I don't have any account older than this one, and if they're not willing to remove the late payments, it's better for it to say R1?  If I have it right, is that because late payments would be removed by default if the account is removed altogether, and the newer the account, the more damaging the late payments are because it will take longer for it to drop off the report?

I'm concerned that when I told him that I might be able to get enough money to pay off the balance in full that somehow this was an agreement to pay the amount in full and that this nullifies the settlement agreement offer that they sent me for half the balance.

Thanks

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Not to cast dispersions, but why in the world would you not pay them what you owe them if you can, regardless of your credit report? 

[Anonymous]

It's unclear if my relative can actually loan me the money, and if he can, I will pay the amount he can loan me.  Also, I'm trying to explore how I can preempt collateral damage to my credit report and even to eliminate derogatory remarks already on my credit report as part of a payment contract with the credit card company if possible.