Okay, Let me try to contain my excitement!!!
So long story short, I have a medical collection showing up on two reports (EQ and EX) for $328 from University of Pennsylvania Dental School (not reporting, CA is reporting)from 2006 that I discovered once I pulled my CR from Annualcreditreport.com; So, I found the email address of the Director of Patient Revenue and emailed him regarding the account stating that I never knew of the outstanding debt leftover from my insurance for the root canal performed. I told him that I am willing to pay the debt as it is mine but in exchange for a request from him to the CA (Global Credit Network) to delete the tradeline from my credit file. He promptly responded that since I had no knowledge of the debt due to moving from my previous address of service shortly thereafter, he is willing to request from the CA that the tradeline line be deleted upon proof of payment to the CA. He also asked that I provide the "language" necessary to be included in his request since I explained to him that I previously contacted the CA regarding this matter to no avail.I explained to him the necessity to have the item removed as opposed to updated as paid and he replied that he is willing to "say" whatever instructed. Is he the nicest man on earth or what?
So my question is what should I explicity instruct him to say? I feel like this is a once in a lifetime opportunity as this is the last baddie that I can have removed from my CR after months of getting baddies deleted (only bk remains due to fall off in August)
If anyone could provide me with the language that I need to provide Mr. Wonderful with, I would GREATLY appreciate it!!!!!
MyFico has gotten me this far, don't fail me now!!!!!!!
P.S. I wanted to post here before replying.
Several preliminary concerns come to mind.
First, does the OC still own the debt? Since the OC apparently never reported to a CRA, you cant tell this directly from your CR. Normally, you can determine this by the OC balance being reduced to $0, and only the CA reporting a balance. Has the OC told you whether they sold the debt to the CA, or merely assigned it for collection?
If they sold the debt, the OC has no authority regarding how it is collected or reported. Since the OC has told you to pay the CA, and not them, this is a good indication that the CA now owns the debt.
Second, even if the OC still owns the debt, all they can still agree to is deletion of its own reporting, of which there is nothing to delete.. They cannot agree on behalf of the CA to instruct them to delete the CA account. They can request it of the CA, but have no authority to require it.
.In my opinion, the proper course would be to directly ask the CA for a PFD deletion of their reporting. You can site the OC rationale as suppot of your request for deletin in your PFD letter, but in my opinion this is not binding on the CA. The CAs are bound by reporting requrements with the CRAs, and one of those requirments is that a CA not delete accurate, prior reporting based on payment of the debt.
Before drafting a letter to the OC, I would wait for more advice from others on this forum, who may have different opinions. I dont think it is as straighforward as Mr.Wonderful OC Guy seems to believe. He does not seem very aware of credit reporting rules and procedures.
I would suggest that if the University of Pennsylvania Dental School assigned your account to the CA that they just recall the acocunt. Once the debt has been recalled the collection agency cannot report it and must delete it. If they sold the debt that is a different story then the school can only ask it the collection agency that will decide to dlete or not. I hope it is the former and not the latter.
I am not disagreeing with you, AndySoCal, and I know many talk about an OC "recall" requriing CA removal of their prior reporting.
I just dont understand the legal basis for such a requirement.
If the OC still owns the debt, and accepts payment, this does not make the prior reporting done by the CA inaccurate or improper.
Sure, the OC would have to close their contract with the CA, and the CA would then have to update their balance to $0, but what then requires the CA to additionally delelte prior and accurate reporting made when tjheir agrrement was in force? I dont undrstand the basis for any such requirement.
It is even more complicated in this particular situation. The OC is asking the consumer to pay the CA, and not them. Thus, the agreement between the OC and CA is still in effect. This looks like a classic PFD with the CA, and I dont see how the OC enters into the decision.
Does anyone have any authority for this so-called "call back" procedure that mandates CA removal of prior repoting?
The collection agency can only rpeort accounts that belong to them. Once the OC recalls the account that account no longer belongs to them. That is the basis.