Re: "Re-Aging" a Debt... can someone puhhleeze show a real example? Again,its vague
You have a Visa that goes into default because you stopped paying your bills. The Visa first goes late on 3/2003 and reflects that on your CR with a 30 day late, the next month, there is a 60, then a 90 and so on. Your DOFD is 3/2003. Eventually the CC decides to sell the debt to a CA and the CC reports as a paid CO because it was sold to the CA. A CA takes over lets say in 6/2004 and makes several attempts to collect and adds interest all along. They eventually give up and then they sell it to a CA. Let's say it gets passed from CA to CA. Each CA reported but go away when the debt is sold.
Finally in 11/2008, a JDB then reports (let's say MCM...they have been known to re-age). MCM reports a high balance, a DOLA of 11/2008 (reporting correctly...that's when they took over), a new reported date, and so on. Your myFICO reports, TC, CCT, and any other 3rd party report would show everything as being OK and reporting legit. However, you go to annualcreditreport.com and pull your reports directly from each CRA. TU and EX report a drop off date of 11/2015 and EQ reports a DOFD of 11/2008. MCM illegally re-aged the debt. They changed the date the debt first went delinquent. SOL is either based on DOFD or when you last paid. Assuming you never paid a dime since 2/2003, then by MCM's actions, this debt would be within SOL. Not only did they reset the clock, but CRTP reset leaving this debt on your reports. Before it was set to fall off around 3/2010. Now it would be over 5 years later.
CAs cannot do that. It is illegal. Doing anything to manipulate DOFD is a violation of the FCRA.