If (ex) husband was the primary on my mortgage - can't be a 1st time?

[Anonymous]

My ex husband and I purchased 2 homes - one in AZ and then one in TX. He was primary. The TX house was ultimately foreclosed on. The foreclosure did not show up on my credit - I had bankrupted and not reaffirmed. (And then get caught in a bizarre, unbelievable Loan Modification but that is a different story. ).

So, if I apply for a mortgage, do I have access to "first time homebuyer" incentives or no?

[ezdriver]

It's not clear to me what type of incentives you are referring to. The IRS definition of a first time homebuyer is one who has not owned a property in two or more of the last five years [or somthing like that].

Your eligibility for a new mortgage after a bankruptcy discharge depends on time since the discharge. Min two years for FHA and much more for a conventional.

[mynameainttracy]

For us to not pay the penalty on some early retirement withdrawals (due to first time homebuyer exemption)  it was that we hadn't owned a home in the last 3 years.

[StartingOver10]

Generally first time homeowner requirements relate to down payment assistance programs and the time period is 3 years since your last home ownership. The time period starts when the deed is transferred out of your name.  It doesn't matter who is 'primary' on the loan.  It is the home ownership that matters.

[ezdriver]

Got it. That is indeed an important factor. Good luck with your search. I'd say give it a try and see what happens.