I've got an open TL account from a CA. I recently sent a DV to this CA. Today I recieved a settlement offer from another CA (same debt and OC) listing the CA that owns the tradeline as the 'client'. I've never seen this done before. Did the first CA farm out my collection to another CA or has this been sold? The letter states that after I make my payment the CA will have the 'client' update my record as paid with the CRAs.
I've already fired off my DV to the original DV / 'client'. Should I DV the other CA? Seems like I might want to, as they are attempting to collect. Should't they have to provide documentation? From what I can tell this CA does not have an active TL with the CRAs (yet). The debt is outside of my states SOL but can still be reported for another year.
It all points to debt collector 1 now being the owner, and assigning collection authority to debt collector 2.
If the OC is appearing in your CR, sale would require them to have updated the debt balance owed to them to $0.
Contact from a new debt collector requires them to send their own dunning notice, and also begins a DV process anew with them.
If you want validattion, yes, send them a new DV.
In their dunning notice, the debt collector was required to have provided the name of the current owner. Dunning notice does not require that they provide the name of an OC. If they provided only the name of debt collector 1, that is additionally thier statement that the OC is not now the current creditor.
In your DV, if you want them to provide the name of the OC, that request must separately be included.