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I have no idea where the cars are, I actually never saw them. The loans have actually turned into conversion loans because no one ever sent in the titles I later found out, so theyre more like personal loans reporting as autos at the moment. I have years and years of texts of him saying hes paying this stuff back but no formal agreement. I also have every credit montering service you can think of. I know he wont try to use my credit again, and either way my score is 487 right now with tons of lates, even if he tried, there wouldnt be any luck Im sure.
So did he actually buy the automobiles? Or did he just take these loans as autombile loans and never actually buy the automobiles? That could potentially be fraud on his part. If a lender gave a loan for an automobile, but an auto was never purchased and the money was used for something else, I would think that this could possibly be considered defrauding the lender. Meaning the money was not used for the purpose the lender loaned it for.
Okay, so are the automobiles purchased in his name? I would think an automobile dealer would be very hesitant to sell an expensive car to someone when the loan was in a different person's name. If the autos were purchased under your name, demand them back as he does not own them.
Also, in the post above, please provide the open date for loans/credit cards/minimum monthly payments/apr. This info should be on your credit reports.
I'll try to get this in. Was it or is it still $120,000 owed on the loans?