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Hi,
I'm curious about how a judgment that was IIB is supposed to be reported after discharge.
With Experian, I got lucky and they removed it completely.
Equifax reports it as SATISFIED and with a $0 liability.
Now - here's my problem:
TransUnion reports it as "Civil Judgment in Bankruptcy" and is reporting a liability of $25,000.
I thought the discharge meant that my personal liability was gone - why is this still reported? If IIB-accounts need to be reported as $0 balance - shouldn't that apply to judgments as well?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Hmm, must be a good question - since nobody seems to have a clue...
Maybe a moderator will move it to the BK section and you will get more of a response.
My "guess" is that it should update to report zero liability since it was included in the discharged BK. Your BK was discharged, right?
If that is the case, do a written dispute (not on the phone, not online) and send in a copy of your BK paperwork that shows it is included and discharged, as well as a copy of your CR that shows how they are reporting it - then nicely ask them to update.
@IOBA wrote:Maybe a moderator will move it to the BK section and you will get more of a response.
My "guess" is that it should update to report zero liability since it was included in the discharged BK. Your BK was discharged, right?
If that is the case, do a written dispute (not on the phone, not online) and send in a copy of your BK paperwork that shows it is included and discharged, as well as a copy of your CR that shows how they are reporting it - then nicely ask them to update.
Thanks, IOBA!
Yes, BK was discharged and closed last month.
Disputing in writing (and by CMRRR) is next on my list. I also share the opinion that "$0" should be the right way of reporting since I really don't have a personal liability any more.
If your BK was discharged last month, give them 30-60 days to update on your CR. The issue may resolve itself. But if not, be prepared with the CMRR!
Thanks!
I was just under the impression that the CRA (TransUnion) already knew about my BK because they already reported that judgment as "Judgment In Bankrupty".
Today, I also received my free annual credit report from TU in the mail and it states the following:
"The amount listed on the Public Record is not a balance. The amount reflects the original amount of the public record item."
This information only appears under the definition under TU's "Public Records" and is not tied to the judgment itself. So are they trying to justify the reporting of a $25,000-amount/liability by adding a remark creditors won't even be able to see??
IOBA, BTW, do you know if OCs that charged-off accounts prior to BK have to report "IIB" besides the "charge-ff"-remark, too? I'm asking because I have many accounts from OCs on file that were transferred, charged-off or sold PRIOR to my BK-filing and they only say "charged off as bad debt" (which is accurate) but DON'T include any IIB-notation, so the impression could arise that I would still owe money on these accounts to other creditors.
Thanks in advance!
It is my understanding that OC is accurately reporting when they say CO or collections, etc -- especially if that action occurred PRIOR to your filing for BK.
When you filed for BK, you could have included the OC, but if they have already discharged the debt as CO, it wont' make a difference in how OC reports or collects.
If the debt was already sold or transferred to someone else prior to filing BK, same thing. The new owner of the debt should have been included in the BK. If they were not, then you still owe that debt and they have a right to collect.
Some people have successfully gone back to the trustee/lawyer/judge and asked that the case be reopened and include the CA. The CA can still report the debt on your CR.
Does that help/answer the question?
The impression you still owe money to a CA for the debt is accurate, and you would, if the CA was not specifically included in the BK.
The OC would not need to include a IIB notation if they charged off/sold/transferred the debt prior to your filing.
@IOBA wrote:
The OC would not need to include a IIB notation if they charged off/sold/transferred the debt prior to your filing.
And why not? the debt was IIB....
And how am I supposed to prove to potential creditors that I don't owe them any money if they don't add "IIB"?
BTW, what CA are you referring to? I don't owe anything to any CA...