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No idea how to handle Bally's response - help please!

Regular Contributor

No idea how to handle Bally's response - help please!

On 4/17/08 we sent a DV CMRRR to Bally's Total Fitness for an account listed on DF's TU as a derogatory chargeoff. I posted a question on this previously and have copied my OP in the indent below:

My fiancee used to go to the gym at Bally's. When we were purchasing our home a couple years ago, she moved to her mother's house rather than renew the lease on her apartment. As per her agreement with Bally's, she provided them with proof that there was not a Bally's location within 30 miles of her home. As such, the contract was then closed.

In March 2007, she received a letter from a CA (Portfolio Acquisitions) for a Bally's bill ($677). We sent a validation letter CMRRR and received no response.

In July 2007, she then received a letter from another CA (Portfolio Recovery) for the same bill. We again sent a validation letter CMRRR and noted in the letter that we had previously sent a letter to the other CA and received no response. We received no response from this CA also.

Checking her report now, she has a CO showing on TU from Bally's.

Even though it appears that we have successfully battled off the CAs, do we still have to go after Bally's now? Does the fact that we received no response from the CAs have any weight? Should we dispute with TU, send a validation letter to Bally's or 1-2 punch starting with Bally's?

Bally's responded yesterday to the DV letter and stated that it has now been sold to Perimeter Credit and the amount is $1,203.54. We haven't received anything from Perimeter Credit nor has anythign appeared on her report. They sent along a "payment history" which I can't really decode. Under the "Fin Bal" column on 2/1/06 is the amount ".00" On the surface, this looks to me like they just never closed her account when she moved and are trying to bill her up until now.

How on earth do we get rid of this?! Should I call the member services number just to see if they can clarify the billing and see if my assumption is indeed correct?
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