Since the debt has been discharged, then technically there is no debt upon which to base an offer to pay.
A creditor might have a hard time accounting for income received upon which no recievable asset is in their books, but perhaps they could ledger it as a "charitable contribution" ?
I see nothing legally improper in a consumer wishing to pay a formerly legit debt, although it would still run afoul of the CRA policy of not deleting information based on satisfaction of the debt.
