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I made a double mtge payment of $1648 & lender allocated $482 (about double of normal amt) to principal, and $1166 to interest. Allocation was not specified. Is lender's allocation proper?
Not an expert on this, but...this is how my brain is seeing this.
My mortgage is due on the 1st, I pay on the first, statement cuts on the 12th. I have a 10 day grace period.
If I make the payment on that day, (12th post stmt cut) a huge payment goes to principle and a small payment goes to interest.
(So let's say it was now and I paid Jan 12 for the Feb 1 due - technically I do not have a payment due until March 11).
My interest would have only been for 12 days. As I understand it, we pay past interest, not future interest.
Now, if I literally do not make the next payment until March 11th and fully use the grace period, I will have accrued interest for basically 58 days. That would mean I had less going to Principle and more to interest from that pymt.
I could be completely off my mental rocker with this example.
So my question is, was your double payment actually a true double payment or was it a payment to cover two months due? I know when I pay my mortgage online, I get to choose: Pay scheduled payment, Pay add'l escrow, Pay add'l principle. It makes me select at least one and specify the amount I am desiring to pay when I choose Pay add'l escrow or add'l principle.