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If a person earns $50,000 per year, has a clean credit file and AAoA of 5 years what would be the maximum of all cards combined that a person could possibly attain. Seems that I read something about 200% of their income. Does this sound about right or is there some other percentage. I am only concerned with revolvers. If anyone knows, or has a guess, will you let me know? Thanks a lot.
I don't think there is a maximum. Every lender has their own underwriting criteria.
@DaveSignal wrote:I don't think there is a maximum. Every lender has their own underwriting criteria.
Okay, but would they consider how much available credit a person has on all of their other cards? I should have stated that the person would only have 2% utilization and that would be on one card.
As always (sorry to say) it does depend.
The sum of my wife's available revolving tradelines is over 10 times income. No one went and slashed her credit lines when she became a stay at home mom and started a small business and she was still able to get more credit after reporting a reasonably lower income.
But really, with a well rounded credit profile, high AAoA, many tradelines, no derogatories ever, and an above average income you can consider available for the repayment of those debts, most financial institutions are more concerned with their risk exposure than the concept of total available limits. In my limited experience, Barclay's cares about total available credit, no one else has ever mentioned it.
Guessing here, but I could see if someone with $50k income has 20% util on $150k revolving...sure more credit may not be a good thing--but that's probably more DTI than available credit.
@Slab wrote:
@DaveSignal wrote:I don't think there is a maximum. Every lender has their own underwriting criteria.
Okay, but would they consider how much available credit a person has on all of their other cards? I should have stated that the person would only have 2% utilization and that would be on one card.
"Every lender has their own underwriting criteria" means "every lender has their own underwriting criteria". Criteria are not universal so your latest question has the same problem as the one in your OP. There is no fixed percentage. They don't all consider the same criteria or weigh the same criteria equally.
Thanks a lot, you all make sense and I appreciate your answers.