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I have a medical collection that has been showing as paid since I disputed it in September of 2011. I don't honestly know were if is from or if I paid it but thought it showing as paid was better than unpaid. I have been working really hard repairing me and my husbands credit to buy a home this summer. I got all my debt paid and a few deleted. Then I received a call from a CA out the blue and they stated they had bought the debt form the CA that was reporting the medical collection paid. I then disputed the debt with CB because I new it was no longer the CA that was on my reports hoping that they would remove it. I told this new CA I wanted something in writing because I was still unsure were this medical collection came from. I never received anything in the mail and now the dispute came back with the first CA showing the medical collection as a collection as of April 2012 and the new CA reporting the same medical collection as a collection. I am devastated. I know my score has dropped tremendously all this hard work to get to the end and have it all fall apart! What can I do???
EX>646 FICO, EP>620, TR>630 FICO
I don't understand it either. Now they are both new collections reporting the same debt. Do I DV both of the CA's?
1. DV them.
2. If YOU have proof this is the same debt, and proof of payment I'd be all over the BBB and Attorney General on this one, for BOTH CA's.
Thanks for the info it was very useful, I had a very similar problem and by chance I found the answer here browsing the forum
Maybe I am misreading the scenario, but this is what I see....
Debt collector 1 reported a collection, and subsequently reported a $0 balance. Then a new debt collector reported the same debt, and both are in the CR?
If that is the scenario, I dont think it is necessarity improper.
If debt collector 1 reported a $0 balance, that does not necessarily mean the debt was paid. It means they have $0 still under collection.. i.e., they are no longer collecting on the debt. Similar to an OC reporting $0 on their account... which does not mean the debt was paid, only that they no longer own it.
Maybe the debt collector sold it, or maybe they just decided to cease collection. In either event, reporting of a $0 balance under collection does not require deletion of their earlier reporting of their collection activities.
Debt collector 2 comes on the scene, with their own collection authority.... either by purchase or assignment. They report it. The prior presence or absence of prior reporting by another debt collector is unrelated to their ability to accurately report their own collection on the debt.
Two debt collectors cannot actively be reporting collection of the same debt, but that is not what I see in the reported scenario......