Info from bobebob from other thread:
The Signature Visa uses your highest reported balance in calculating your utilization.
For example, I have a 17k limit on my Sig Visa. But that isn't what reports. My highest balance of $5k is what they use to calculate my Utilization.
I.E if you transfer balances to a new Signature Visa, that balance would then be the highest reported balance and your utilization on that card would be 100%.
Info from bobebob from other thread:
The Signature Visa uses your highest reported balance in calculating your utilization.
For example, I have a 17k limit on my Sig Visa. But that isn't what reports. My highest balance of $5k is what they use to calculate my Utilization.
I.E if you transfer balances to a new Signature Visa, that balance would then be the highest reported balance and your utilization on that card would be 100%.
Thanks for your input – help me understand this, please…
What you’re saying is that if I transfer (say $6000) onto a non-reporting CL Sig Visa, it will show my highest reported balance as $6000 and calculate future utilization off the $6000 highest reported balance. So, if I paid $1000 on it, then the next month it will show my utilization as 83%. Correct? This is in contradiction to what I found from a former moderator here (Fused). Here is what Fused had to say:
Depending on how a no limit card reports to each CRA, the impact to scores will vary. A no limit card should report the following:
EQ: open account, a balance does not factor in revolving util calculations.
EX: revolving, terms 1 month, balance does not factor in revolving util calculations even though it reports as a revolving account.
TU: open account, a balance will factor in util calculations if the FICO scoring model TU98 (the one currently in use at this site when we pull TU scores) is used to generate your score. If TU04 is used to pull your score, open accounts do not factor in revolving util calculations.
Keep in mind if a balance is reporting, especially a big balance, this might have a negative impact on scores. This is not because of util, it's the mere fact that you owe money. It doesn't seem you lose a ton of points for this, but this is where FICO scoring gets very complicated, so I will leave it at that.
Assuming that what you have said is correct and I go ahead with a balance transfer, how much of a negative will it be that I have one card at around 75-80% utilization, and two others with around 20-30% utilization? Keeping in mind that my overall utilization at this point would calculate out to less than 5%, will the one large-balance card cause me any AA? I’ve been there before, and don’t plan on going back.
Does anyone know definitively how their utilization is calculated on the BoA Travel Rewards Signature card?
Been thinking a little more on this, and something's just not making sense...
If utilization on a Sig card is always calculated on the highest balance, then this would mean that if you charged progressively higher amounts and didn't pay it off immediately, it would look like you were constantly maxing out the card. When in reality, you may be nowhere close to your actual limit. If this were the case, then why would anyone want a Signature card?
I don't think this is right, somehow...
Edit: posted the same time as trumpet
@trumpet-205 wrote:First of all, take a deep breath and stop worrying about utilization for a bit. A lot of people is making a huge deal from the Visa Signature/World MC, as if the sky is falling down.
Different FICO scoring model (there are like 30+ models just for credit card enhanced flavor) treats Visa Signature differently. In general, when it comes to Visa Signature without a reported CL, newer FICO scoring model does not include it for utilization calculation. Which means any balance on this card hardly makes a difference.
Older FICO scoring model does include such account into calculation. In that case FICO uses the highest ever reported balance plus any balance from other card to calculate your average utilization.
Different lender uses different FICO scoring model, which is why it is pointless to "artificially" inflate a FICO score. IIRC Equifax does not even record highest balance, so it wouldn't matter anyway.
What's far more important is not your utilization, but whether you pay your bill on time or not.
Thank you. This is what I found that Fused had said, and the other info threw me for a loop! Sorry for the panic... 
In any case, I'm going for it. I just put in for a balance transfer request on my remaining cards, and as soon as they reflect on my card I'm going to PC to the Sig card.
I have two other cards that are 0% right now, so I will leave those alone - should have them both paid off by the end of the year. At that point, I'll only have the BoA card to finish paying on, and I have until June, 2013 at 0%.
Once everything updates by the end of October/first of November, I'll be sitting at 4.4% utilization! Quite a change from when I started out at 70%+ at the beginning of the year, huh? 
trumpet-205 wrote:
Different FICO scoring model (there are like 30+ models just for credit card enhanced flavor) treats Visa Signature differently. In general, when it comes to Visa Signature without a reported CL, newer FICO scoring model does not include it for utilization calculation. Which means any balance on this card hardly makes a difference.
Older FICO scoring model does include such account into calculation. In that case FICO uses the highest ever reported balance plus any balance from other card to calculate your average utilization (total balance divided by total CL).
This is very enlightening. Thanks for your input!
