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My entire Chase card is at 0% apr, but with different expirations. My May statement had $99 at 0% until 6/20, and $8000 at 0% until May 2021.
I paid $2000 in early June well before 6/20, but the June statement shows $20 still subject to the my regular interest rate. How in the world do they apply their payments?
Editing to add that there were no additional charges on the card.
Not the way you wanted
@Kforce wrote:Not the way you wanted
do they not push any inc. money torward the highest interest balances?
best bet is to call and see exactly how they will apply your payment if you dont feel like going through your cardmember agreement
@elixerin wrote:
@Kforce wrote:Not the way you wanted
do they not push any inc. money torward the highest interest balances?
best bet is to call and see exactly how they will apply your payment if you dont feel like going through your cardmember agreement
By law, they are required to apply any amount above the minimum payment to the balance with the highest interest; however, the OP has 2 balances with 0% interest
The APRs and balances on your statement shows how interest was calculated for the statement period, not how much is owed. Even if you paid your account to $0, you still would have had a balance subject to your APR which is 0% so $0.00 interest.
I believe Chase works the same as BoA and Discover (and I am sure others) when it comes to multiple balances. By law, anything over your minimum payment must be applied to the highest interest balanace, but once you get to the lowest interest amounts it will be applied to the promo ending soonest. I am not sure if they would apply the minimum to the later date, though. Whatever might be left is minimal so you would only owe interest on the remaining balance, it's not retroactive.