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No, it does not mean that it will automatically be reported to the CRAs.
Credit reporting is voluntary, and a creditor can choose not to report a delinquency, and/or can choose to delay first reporting of a delinquency statuts until the delinquency level has reached a certain amount, such as 60-late.
Additionally, some creditors do not even have a reporting agreement with some or any CRAs, and thus cannot report, period.
Similarly, not all debt collectors report to CRAs, and even if they do, some will delay reporting of their collection for a month or two in order to provide a short period for payment of the debt without the need to then consider any pay for deletions. CRA policy instructs both creditors and debt collectors not to delete after reporting based on consumer payment of the debt.
I would begin by sending the debt collector a debt validation (DV) letter, which imposes a temporary cease collection bar on them which remains in effect until they have first sent the requested debt validation. The cease collection bar has generally been interpreted by the courts as extending to any reporting of their collection until the cease collection bar is lifted by their sending of validation. That will provide a temporary reprieve from reporting of a collection.
I would then contact the creditor and determine if they still own the debt. If they do, I would offer to pay them the debt in exchange for their agreement to first terminate the assigned collection authority to the debt collector, and to also agree not to report any delinquencies to the CRAs.
I would be surprised if a mortgage loan that is "only" 42 days late would be turned over to an outside collection agency. I suspect that an in-house effort is underway and that could be through a contacted collection/debt service. As a rule, mortgage holders do NOT want mortgages to default or go to foreclosure sale - it's complicated and they typically take a loss. In my experience, the first "call" is typically 30 days after a missed payment (about 45 days counting the grace period) which fits your case.
Assuming that the account has been caught up and is current, and understanding that a payment 42 days late is YOUR fault (the mortgage holder) since it's never good to assume payments are made as scheduled (I always double check my payments, always), I would call the mortgage servicer and plead my case - offer proof that they pulled from the wrong account or just explain why it happened aka not a lack of funds. Many lenders will give you a one-shot goodwill "no-report" if you have a sterling history with them but they don't have to.
We called last week and were notified by the customer service rep that they were obligated report the delinquency to the credit bureaus, so we're currently drafting a goodwill letter.
My current question is in regards to the timing of the letter. Should we send it immediately or wait a couple months after demonstrating we're able to make timely payments again?
In the below linked article, at the very bottom, the author states:
"You’re also more likely to have the delinquency removed if it happened a while ago. That’s because you’ve had time to prove that it was just a one-time occurrence rather than an ongoing financial issue."
https://aaacreditguide.com/goodwill-letters/
Waiting a couple months to show you're "back on track" makes sense to me, but conversely, we planned to provide a few bank statements for the periods before, during, and after the delinquency to demonstrate her account was amply funded to reassure them it won't be an on-going issue.
Any thoughts are greatly appreciated.
Thanks,