So it's fairly common knowledge on credit repair forums that letting 1-9% utilization of your total overall credit limits report on one card results in optimal scoring. But is anyone aware of a point where that utilization affects you negatively due to the limit on that card that reports it?
Let's say I have two cards, one with a $10K CL and one with a $1K CL. Let's use 2% overall utilization as optimal scoring for this example:
Total limits = $10,000 + $1000 = $11,000 * .02 = $220 overall reporting for optimal scoring, and it is on the $1K card. So that individual card has 22% utilization with 2% overall. Would/should this be scored any differently than if the $220 was reporting on the $10k card instead (2.2% card/2% overall)?
Now let's use a card with a $10k CL along with a card with a $300 CL:
Total limits = $10,000 + 300 = $10,200 * .02 = $206 overall reporting for optimal scoring, and it is all on the $300 card. So that card has 69% utilization with 2% overall. Now this to me would seem a bit worse because of high utilization of an individual line, would that be correct?
To me there has to be a crossover point where approaching high utilization on an individual card starts to negatively affect your scores as well, despite sticking to the 1-9% overall rule. The obvious answer is to carry your overall utilization balance on the card with the highest limit to avoid this whole mental exercise in the first place I suppose. 
Thoughts?
