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Hi,
I have a question for the myFICO community. I used to frequent these boards religiously back in 2012-2015. I am back with a question for my sister who is wanting to purchase a house. She is currently a homeowner and is putting her home on the market. I haven't been paying much attention to FICO scores for the last few years, and my knowledge is now a bit rusty. :-)
The issue is her mid score is 630 and she wants to be at 680 or higher. On her credit file, the only thing I can see is her revolving ultilization is high. She doesn't have any collections, no charge-offs. The only baddie on her report is 1 late payment (January 2017).
Her total revolving debt is $58k, and her aggregate utlilization is currently at 75%. She has $32k available to pay towards credit cards, but her concern is how best to do it. Should she put it all towards the revolving debt, or should she take some of the funds and continue padding her savings. We have been scouring the myFICO boards, but it seems like the mortgage FICO scoring is still a huge mystery.
My question is if she puts the full $32k to her revolving debt, do you think she can get at least a 50 point bump 680 (her mid score is EQ)? I've been reading the there are thresholds for FICO8. Should we use those thresholds as a guide and once we calculate total ultilization down below 48%, take after is left and keep it in savings?
All advice is greatly appreciated.
@DSTforlife wrote:I posted this in another myfico discussion board, but I thought I'd post it here also in case there are mortgage score experts here to help.
I have a question for the myFICO community. I used to frequent these boards religiously back in 2012-2015. I am back with a question for my sister who is wanting to purchase a house. She is currently a homeowner and is putting her home on the market. I haven't been paying much attention to FICO scores for the last few years, and my knowledge is now a bit rusty. :-)
The issue is her mid score is 630 and she wants to be at 680 or higher. On her credit file, the only thing I can see is her revolving ultilization is high. She doesn't have any collections, no charge-offs. The only baddie on her report is 1 late payment (January 2017).
Her total revolving debt is $58k, and her aggregate utlilization is currently at 75%. She has $32k available to pay towards credit cards, but her concern is how best to do it. Should she put it all towards the revolving debt, or should she take some of the funds and continue padding her savings. We have been scouring the myFICO boards, but it seems like the mortgage FICO scoring is still a huge mystery.
My question is if she puts the full $32k to her revolving debt, do you think she can get at least a 50 point bump 680 (her mid score is EQ)? I've been reading that there are thresholds for FICO8. Should we use those thresholds as a guide and once we calculate total ultilization down below 48%, take after is left and keep it in savings?
Everything else is on point with her...DTI, work history, taxes, etc. It's just that darn score she's trying to maximize.
All advice is greatly appreciated.
So FYI, cross posting the same thing is against the TOS of the forum so a mod will be combining your threads.
You need to provide specifics, as in:
Card 1 $Xxxx/$Yyyy
Card 2...
Both individual utilization and overall utilization is factored into scoring.
Mortgage scores respond favorably to accounts with $0 balance.
@DSTforlife wrote:Hi,
I have a question for the myFICO community. I used to frequent these boards religiously back in 2012-2015. I am back with a question for my sister who is wanting to purchase a house. She is currently a homeowner and is putting her home on the market. I haven't been paying much attention to FICO scores for the last few years, and my knowledge is now a bit rusty. :-)
The issue is her mid score is 630 and she wants to be at 680 or higher. On her credit file, the only thing I can see is her revolving ultilization is high. She doesn't have any collections, no charge-offs. The only baddie on her report is 1 late payment (January 2017).
Her total revolving debt is $58k, and her aggregate utlilization is currently at 75%. She has $32k available to pay towards credit cards, but her concern is how best to do it. Should she put it all towards the revolving debt, or should she take some of the funds and continue padding her savings. We have been scouring the myFICO boards, but it seems like the mortgage FICO scoring is still a huge mystery.
My question is if she puts the full $32k to her revolving debt, do you think she can get at least a 50 point bump 680 (her mid score is EQ)? I've been reading the there are thresholds for FICO8. Should we use those thresholds as a guide and once we calculate total ultilization down below 48%, take after is left and keep it in savings?
All advice is greatly appreciated.
She should apply it to her revolving debt. That will really light a fire under her mortgage scores.
She'll save a lot of money in interest with higher scores.
She should get everything down to 48% or less, then 28% or less, and then start zeroing out accounts.
sorry about that....i didn't realize it was a violation. It's been so long since i've been on the myfico boards. :-)
i will have to ask her for balance details. i don't have that info in front of me and i can't remember it. however, she has about 8 tradelines and we talked about her having a least half of them at zero balance.
thank you for your reply. do you mean start by paying down each individual trade line to 48% or the aggregate total down to 48%? when she and i were talking about how to do it, i recommended that she gets as many individual accounts to zero as possible. she has a couple with higher balances, and i recommended that she not pay those off, but pay it down somewhat (i'm not sure if it would be below 48%). she has about 8 in total, and we talked about getting half of them down to zero and leaving balances on the other half. this is the stuff i'm fuzzy on.
Unfortunately, I don't have have her balance to limit details in front of me and i can't remember them. I'll try to get that info from her and post later.
@DSTforlife wrote:thank you for your reply. do you mean start by paying down each individual trade line to 48% or the aggregate total down to 48%?
Each individual account.
when she and i were talking about how to do it, i recommended that she gets as many individual accounts to zero as possible.
I used to advise that, too, but then through testing of my accounts -- which was corroborated by several other forum members -- we learned that getting rid of 50% or higher balances gave mortgage scores an even more significant boost.
she has a couple with higher balances, and i recommended that she not pay those off, but pay it down somewhat (i'm not sure if it would be below 48%). she has about 8 in total, and we talked about getting half of them down to zero and leaving balances on the other half. this is the stuff i'm fuzzy on.
Unfortunately, I don't have have her balance to limit details in front of me and i can't remember them. I'll try to get that info from her and post later.
She should first get each account down to 48% or less. Then she should get each account down to 28% or less. Then, if she has anything left, she should start zeroing them out.
perfect. thank you for the clarification!
Getting each individual revolving account utilization below 49% is an excellent 1st step in boosting mortgage score. After that, I would strongly recommend paying off a couple low balance accounts (assuming she has a couple in this category). Why? - EQ Mortgage score is extraordinarily sensitive to #/% of revolving accounts with a balance.
If 100% of revolvers currently have a balance (say 8 accounts) dropping to 6 accounts with a balance (75%) would have a substantial benefit to score. The improvement would be greater than taking 1 or 2 alternate accounts to under 29% from under 49% IMO. In any case, get all accounts under 49% utilization as a 1st step - or under 48%, as SJ suggested, for an added margin of safety.
@DSTforlife wrote:I posted this in another myfico discussion board, but I thought I'd post it here also in case there are mortgage score experts here to help.
I have a question for the myFICO community. I used to frequent these boards religiously back in 2012-2015. I am back with a question for my sister who is wanting to purchase a house. She is currently a homeowner and is putting her home on the market. I haven't been paying much attention to FICO scores for the last few years, and my knowledge is now a bit rusty. :-)
The issue is her mid score is 630 and she wants to be at 680 or higher. On her credit file, the only thing I can see is her revolving ultilization is high. She doesn't have any collections, no charge-offs. The only baddie on her report is 1 late payment (January 2017).
Her total revolving debt is $58k, and her aggregate utlilization is currently at 75%. She has $32k available to pay towards credit cards, but her concern is how best to do it. Should she put it all towards the revolving debt, or should she take some of the funds and continue padding her savings. We have been scouring the myFICO boards, but it seems like the mortgage FICO scoring is still a huge mystery.
My question is if she puts the full $32k to her revolving debt, do you think she can get at least a 50 point bump 680 (her mid score is EQ)? I've been reading that there are thresholds for FICO8. Should we use those thresholds as a guide and once we calculate total ultilization down below 48%, take after is left and keep it in savings?
Everything else is on point with her...DTI, work history, taxes, etc. It's just that darn score she's trying to maximize.
All advice is greatly appreciated.
As a lender, I would run a credit simulator to come up with the best plan of action to raise the scores.
thank you!
She sent me her info last night, and I took the time to create a spreadsheet showing how best to optimize her pay-downs. This is what I came up with. I took both of your advice and brought all of her cards down to 48% and then with what was left over, brought other cards directly to zero. I skipped over 28% altogther since zero balances are more important. Here is what i came up with. She has 14 tradelines....not sure where I got 8 from. But, anywho, this gets her down to having 8 tradelines with balances at 48% or lower, and 6 with zero balance. do you think this is the right approach?
I'm thinking about charging her a credit analysis fee for my troubles.
Trade Line | credit limit | 48% balance | current balance | amount to pay to get to 48% | balance left | additional amount to pay to get to 0 | TOTAL TO PAY ON EACH CARD | FINAL BALANCE LEFT | % Util |
TL 1 | 2,500 | 1,200 | 1,526 | 326 | 1,200 | 326 | 1,200 | 48.0% | |
TL 2 | 2,000 | 960 | 1,757 | 797 | 960 | 960 | 1,757 | - | 0.0% |
TL 3 | 4,500 | 2,160 | 4,026 | 1,866 | 2,160 | 1,866 | 2,160 | 48.0% | |
TL 4 | 7,500 | 3,600 | 5,887 | 2,287 | 3,600 | 2,287 | 3,600 | 48.0% | |
TL 5 | 16,000 | 7,680 | 14,031 | 6,351 | 7,680 | 6,351 | 7,680 | 48.0% | |
TL 6 | 5,500 | 2,640 | 4,400 | 1,760 | 2,640 | 1,760 | 2,640 | 48.0% | |
TL 7 | 9,000 | 4,320 | 7,800 | 3,480 | 4,320 | 4,320 | 7,800 | - | 0.0% |
TL 8 | 2,600 | 1,248 | 1,600 | 352 | 1,248 | 1,248 | 1,600 | - | 0.0% |
TL 9 | 2,500 | 1,200 | 1,058 | - | 1,058 | - | 1,058 | 42.3% | |
TL 10 | 5,400 | 2,592 | 2,054 | - | 2,054 | - | 2,054 | 38.0% | |
TL 11 | 10,000 | 4,800 | 9,160 | 4,360 | 4,800 | 4,360 | 4,800 | 48.0% | |
TL 12 | 6,000 | 2,880 | 5,641 | 2,761 | 2,880 | 2,880 | 5,641 | - | 0.0% |
TL 13 | 1,100 | 528 | - | - | - | - | 0.0% | ||
TL 14 | 3,900 | 1,872 | - | - | - | - | 0.0% | ||
TOTAL | 78,500 | 37,680 | 58,940 | 24,340 | 34,600 | 9,408 | 33,748 | 25,192 | 32.1% |
% utilization (aggregate) | 75.08% | 44.08% | 32.09% |